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Quiz corner was developed to keep us sharp. The correct answers are available by clicking on the answers button. To access our 6 comprehensive CHT practice exams, which are updated yearly, and provide you detailed explanations and references CLICK HERE.

After you hit submit, the correct answers will be bolded. If you do not select an answer, then the correct answer will also be marked with a red X.

Test Your Knowledge 1

1. A Martin-Gruber connection is between the median and and ulnar nerves in the forearm.
- True
- False
- Neither True orFalse
- Both True and False
2. How many flexor tendons are in the carpal tunnel?
- 9
- 10
- 11
- 12
3. What is Osborne's ligament
- it is the ligament of struthers
- it is the arcade of struthers
- it joins the FCU two heads
- none of the above
4. Which is NOT a common site for compression of the radial nerve
- fibrous bands
- arcade of Frohse
- leash of Henry
- all of the above are potential sites
5. Which is NOT a common site for compression of the ulnar nerve
- arcade of Struthers
- ligament of Struthers
- medial intermuscular septum
- Guyon’s canal
6. Cheiralgia paresthetica is related to what nerve?
- ulnar
- median
- superficial radial sensory
- palmar cutaneous
7. How fast is axonal growth in humans?
- 1-2 mm/day
- 2-4 mm/day
- 4-5 mm/day
- 6-8mm/day
8. A complete transaction of the nerve is called:
- neurapraxia
- axonotmesis
- neurotmesis
- None of the above
9. What test is used to assess clinically the extent of axonal regeneration after nerve injury and repair?
- Tinel's
- Phalen's
- Reverse Phalen’s
10. A tendon used for a tendon transfer needs at least what muscle grade to be a candidate?
- 2/5
- 3/5
- 4/5
- Any tendon can be used.

Test Your Knowledge 2

1. Where does a dorsal wrist ganglion originate?
- S-L ligament
- L-T ligament
- Hook of Hamate
- Radial Artery
2. What is the proposed treatment for pyogenic granulomas?
- Surgical drainage
- Coban wrap
- Silver Nitrate
- Soap and water
3. Typically how long does a surgeon wait before implementing tendon transfers following peripheral nerve repairs?
- 3 months
- 6 months
- 9-12 months
- over 3 years
4. What part of the nerve surrounds individual axons?
- Endoneurium
- Epineurium
- Perineurium
- None of the above
5. Which is NOT a sign of inflammation?
- Erythema
- Edema
- Heat
- All of the above are signs
6. Which injury has the highest predictive value for a nail bed laceration?
- distal phalanx dislocations
- nail gun injury
- fracture of the distal phalanx
- none of the above
7. Which carpal ligament is known as the "sling" ligament, preventing vertical rotation of the scaphoid and ultimately wrist instability and collapse:
- S-L ligament
- L-T ligament
- Radioscaphocapitate ligament
- Transverse intercarpal ligament
8. Extensor tendon injuries (especially the sagittal band) most often occur in what digit?
- index
- long
- ring
- small
9. What structure prevents bowstringing?
- cruciate pulleys
- annular pulleys
- collateral ligaments
- all of the above
10. Which pulley originates and inserts on the proximal phalanx of the thumb, in close association with the adductor pollicis?
- A1 of the thumb
- A2 of the thumb
- Oblique pulley of the thumb
- Cruciate pulley of the thumb

Test Your Knowledge 3

1. A patient complains of pain with thumb extension, swelling along the EPL tendon sheath, tenderness, and crepitus on the dorsum of the distal radius. What might she have?
- First Choice
- ECU tendonitis
- FCR tendonitis
- FPL tendonitis
2. Which finger is most prone to being a congenital trigger finger?
- Thumb
- Index finger
- Ring finger
- Small finger
3. What anatomical structure is responsible for attritional rupture of the extensor tendon to the small finger?
- Hook of Hamate
- Ulnar styloid
- Lister’s Tubercle
- Trapezium Ridge
4. What is the treatment approach for cellulitis, after the inflammation has subsided?
- Coban wrap at night only
- Paraffin wax
- Aggressive PROM
- AROM exercises
5. Why type of infection is unique to diabetes patients?
- subepidermal abcess
- gas gangrene
- osteomyelitis
- strep
6. What is a thermal injury to living tissues from prolonged exposure to subfreezing temperatures called?
- gangreene
- superfical burn
- frostbite
- deep 3rd degree burn
7. After rapid rewarming, at what point should surgical debridement be considered?
- Within 24 hours
- Within 72 hours
- After 3 weeks
- After 3 months
8. A pathologic process in which elevated tissue pressure within a confined anatomic space compromises vascular flow at the capillary level, thus preventing adequate tissue oxegenation is a condition called:
- Frostbite
- Compartment syndrome
- Volkmann’s ischemic contracture
- None of the above
9. Which is not one of the P's of compartment syndrome?
- pain
- pallor
- pulselessness
- predictable
10. Which area of the hand is particularly vulnerable to infection?
- Volar aspect of the thumb and index finger
- Dorsal aspect of the 3rd, 4th and 5th MCP
- Adductor Pollicis compartment
- Thenar compartment

Test Your Knowledge 4

1. Which of the following is NOT radial nerve innervated?
- Triceps
- Anconeus
- FCR
- ECRL
2. Which of the following is NOT Ulnar Nerve innervated?
- FCU
- FDP to ring and little
- Abductor digiti minimi
- Pronator teres
3. Which of the following is NOT median nerve innervated:
- FCR
- FDS
- FPL
- ECU
4. A Froment’s sign indicates damage to what nerve?
- median
- radial
- ulnar
- musculocutaneous
5. Which of the following is NOT innervated by the PIN ?
- APL
- EDM
- EDC
- ECRL
6. Which muscle could have an accessory slip called Gantzer’s muscle?
- FDP
- FDS
- FPL
- APL
7. de Quervain’s disease is associated with use of which wrist motion?
- Radial and Ulnar Deviation
- Flexion
- Extension
- Flexion and extension
8. The AIN innervated which of the following muscles:
- FPL, FDP 1 and 2, FDS
- FPL, FDP 1 and 2, PL
- FPL, FDP 1 and 2, PQ
- FPL, FDP 3 and 4, PQ
9. Symptoms of AIN syndrome include:
- Paresthesia in the forearm/hand in the medial nerve distribution.
- Pain and motor-route damage to the FPL and FDS.
- Discomfort and motor damage to the FPL, FDP 1 and 2 and PQ.
- Pallor and paresthesia in the forearm/hand.
10. When the fingers are flexed what muscle can occupy the space within the carpal tunnel?
- Lumbricals
- Dorsal interossei
- Palmar interossei
- Adductor pollicis

Test Your Knowledge 5

1. Phalen's test assess for what diagnosis?
- Guyons canal compression
- Wrist tendonitis
- Ulnar tunnel
- CTS
2. What two forearm muscles are innervated by the ulnar nerve?
- FCU and FDP
- FCR and FDP
- FCR and FDP
- FCU and FDS
3. What is a "spilled tea cup" sign?
- A dorsal scaphoid fracture
- Dorsal rotation of the lunate on a lateral view of the wrist in a patient with a lunate dislocation
- Volar rotation of the lunate on a lateral view of the wrist in a patient with a lunate dislocation
- A volar scaphoid fracture
4. Heberden’s nodes are higher incidence in women. True or False
- True
- False
5. Bouchard's nodes are located at what joint level?
- DIP
- PIP
- MP
- IP of the thumb
6. What is the preferred surgical procedure for OA of the DIPJ?
- Arthrodesis
- Arthroplasty
- Distal pinning
- None of the above
7. Which pattern of degenerative arthritis is the most common?
- Hemochromatosis
- Triscaphe arthritis
- SLAC
- None of the above
8. Why do tendon ruptures occur in the patient with RA?
- attrition
- infiltration
- ischemia
- All of the above
9. Which two finger deformities commonly occur in the patient with RA?
- mallet and tendon rupture
- boutonniere and mallet finger
- mallet and swan neck
- swan-neck and boutonniere
10. What provocative test is used to diagnose de Quervain's?
- Tinel's
- Linburg's syndrome
- Finkelstein's
- Phalen's

Test Your Knowledge 6

1. What type of displacement will you see in a Colles’ fracture on an x-ray
- dorsal
- volar
- lateral
- medial
2. What type of displacement is present with a Smiths fracture?
- Fdorsal
- volar
- medial
- lateral
3. Within the working population, what is the most common hand fracture?
- Proximal Phalanx
- Middle Phalanx
- Distal Phalanx
- none of the above
4. What does DISI stand for
- dorsal intercalated segment instability
- divergent intercaled segment instability
- dorsal integral segment instability
- dorsal intercalted sement instructions
5. The most common instability pattern is:
- VISI
- DISI
- Greater Arc
- Lesser Arc
6. What does CID stand for?
- creepy instigation driver
- Contour instability Dissociative
- carpal intersection dissociation
- Carpal Instability Dissociative
7. What bone is associated with Preiser's disease?
- Lunate
- Capitate
- Scaphoid
- Pisiform
8. What is the most commonly fractured carpal bone?
- scaphoid
- lunate
- hammate
- triquetrum
9. Which carpal bone is the second most common fracture?
- lunate
- triquetrum
- hamate
- trapezium
10. What structure separates the distal radioulnar joint?
- Snuff Box
- Space of Porier
- TFCC
- None of the above

Test Your Knowledge 7

1. What artery is the primary blood source to the scaphoid?
- ulnar
- radial
- Both of these supply equally
- Neither of these supply the scaphoid
2. A scaphoid is considered displaced if it has as LITTLE as how many mm of displacement?
- 1 mm
- 2 mm
- 3 mm
- 4 mm
3. Which scaphoid fracture has the propensity to develop a non-union?
- distal pole
- central body
- proximal pole
- none of the above
4. What is the most common carpal instability pattern in the wrist?
- ST
- LT
- SL
- they are equally common
5. What test is commonly used to assess an SL carpal instability?
- Kleinman shear test
- Watons shift test
- Linscheid
- all of the above are used
6. What fracture occurs due to direct injury to the hypothenar region?
- Hamate body fracture
- Triquetrum fracture
- Hook of the hamate fracture
- None of the above
7. What is the preferred treatment for hook of the hamate fracture?
- excision
- ORIF
- Plates
- k-wire
8. Which finger most commonly fractures the metacarpal neck fracture?
- small finger
- ring finger
- middle finger
- index finger
9. Which tendon serves as an antagonist to the ECRL?
- ECRB
- FCU
- FCR
- Palmaris Longus
10. A reverse Bennett's fracture affects what digit?
- thumb
- middle
- ring
- index
- small

Test Your Knowledge 8

1. Which upper extremity joints are considered most symptomatic for those with osteoarthritis?
- DIPJ's and first CMCJ
- MCPJ’s and first CMCJ
- DIPJ's and PIPJ's
- First CMCJ and wrist
2. What does FOOSH stand for
- Flipped on open shaped hand
- Fall over open shaft hand
- Fall on the outstretched hand
- Favorite open oval shaped hands
3. What is considered wrist ROM that allows for most activities of daily living to be performed? (excludes perineal care and rising from a chair)
- extension and flexion 20 degree arc ; radial and ulnar deviation 10 degree arc
- extension and flexion 30 degree arc ; radial and ulnar deviation 30 degree arc
- extension and flexion 40 degree arc; radial deviation 10 degrees and ulnar deviation 30 degrees
- extension and flexion 10 degree arc; radial deviation and ulnar deviation 60 degree arc
4. Which provocative test involves making a fist with the wrist in neutral for 30-40 seconds while the wrist is in neutral? This test is considered positive if pain and paresthesia is invoked?
- Phalen's
- Tinel's
- Durkan's
- Berger's
5. What is the recommended treatment strategy for a mallet finger injury s/p 6 weeks of immobilization in which the patient exhibits an extensor lag after initiating AROM of the DIPJ?
- Encourage more aggressive PROM to DIP; discontinuation of orthotic support
- Orthotic support continued at night, encourage AROM and PROM during the day
- Orthotic support continued day and night
- Orthotic support continued at night; PROM during the day
6. Hyperextension of the PIP joint with flexion of the DIP joint is known as:
- Swan neck deformity
- Mallet finger
- Boutonniere
- none of the above
7. Following the LRTI procedure, how long must a patient wear a thumb spica cast/orthosis?
- one week
- two weeks
- four weeks
- ten weeks
8. What is another name for stenosing tenosynovitis
- dupuytren's
- mallet finger
- trigger finger
- none of the above
9. The orthotic position required s/p dorsal capsulectomies of the MCP's is:
- 75 degrees MCP flexion
- full extension of the MCP's
- 20 degrees MCP flexion
- no orthosis
10. The anterior interosseous is a branch of which nerve?
- Axillary
- Median
- Musculocutaneous
- Radial
- Ulnar

Test Your Knowledge 9

1. What bony deformity occurs at the DIPJ in OA?
- a. Keinbock's disease
- b. Herberden's nodes
- c. Bouchard's nodules
- d. none of the above
2. Which fracture diplaces dorsally with regards to the distal radius?
- a. Colles'
- b. Smith's
- c. Chaufer's
- d. none of the above
3. A rupture of the extensor tendon distal phalanx from the EDC is termed?
- Boutonnierre
- Swan neck
- Mallet finger
- None of the above
4. Stenosisng tensosynovitis of the APL/EPB is:
- DeQuervain’s disease
- Preisser’s disease
- O'Keefe’s disease
- CTS
5. Which deformity presents with hyperextension of the PIP and flexion of the DIPJ?
- Pseudo Boutonniere
- Pseudo Boutonniere
- Swan neck
- Mallet
6. Which of the following is NOT a test for dexterity?
- Purdue
- Bennett
- Minnesota rate of manipulation
- All of these are dexterity tests
7. Which trait describes early edema?
- Brawny
- Thick
- Pitting
- None of the above
8. Which of the following is NOT a finger infection?
- Paranychia
- Felon
- Herpatic Whitlow
- All of the above are finger infections
9. Another term for paradoxical extension of the hand is?
- Saddle syndrome
- Horners syndrome
- Lumbrical plus finger
- CIND
10. What orthotic has been reported as useful for a carpal instability non dissociative?
- Traction orthotic
- Pisiform boost orthotic
- Wrist cock-up
- Resting hand splint
Comments
This field is for validation purposes and should be left unchanged.

Test Your Knowledge 10

1. What is the advantage of an epitendinous repair?
- a. it tidies the repair edges
- b. assists in avoiding adhesions
- c. adds to the strength of the repair
- d. all of the above
2. What is the most common complication post flexor tendon repair?
- a. gapping
- b. rupture
- c. adhesions
- d. none of the above
3. Which flexor zone injury requires positioning of the wrist in neutral and the MCP’s at 40 degrees of flexion?
- Zone 3
- Zone 4
- Zone 5
- Zone 7
4. Which sagittal band is torn more commonly?
- radial
- ulnar
- torn equally the same
- these are rarely injured
5. Which syndrome is manifested by a painful grip, resultant from formation of adhesions between the lumbricals and the interossei and creates impingement of the deep transverse metacarpal arch?
- Marfan Syndrome
- Bardet-Biedl syndrome
- Saddle syndrome
- Compartment syndrome
6. What is the primary extensor of the PIP joint?
- Lateral band
- Sagittal band
- Terminal band
- Central tendon
7. The Leddy’s Classification system describes avulsion of which tendon?
- Palmaris Longus
- FDP
- FDS
- FPL
8. What is the standard positioning protocol for a mallet injury combined with swan neck deformity?
- 6-8 weeks immobilization at 0 degrees extension of DIP and PIP
- 6-8 weeks immobilization at 0 degrees extension of DIP, PIP, MCP
- 6-8 weeks immobilization at 0 degrees extension of DIP and PIP placed in 30-45 degrees of flexion
- 6-8 weeks immobilization at 0 degrees extension of DIP and PIP placed in 60-75 degrees of flexion
9. Which of the following is a compression site of the ulnar nerve?
- Arcade of struthers
- Ligament of struthers
- Humeral head of the pronator teres
- Lacertus fibrosis
10. Which muscles are innervated by the axillary nerve:
- Deltoid, teres major
- Deltoid, pectoralis minor
- Deltoid, teres minor
- Teres major, teres minor
Phone
This field is for validation purposes and should be left unchanged.

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